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CompTIA SY0-701 Dumps

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(@wildauerdevon)
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Free CompTIA SY0-701 Dumps are shared online. You can view and discuss CompTIA SY0-701 questions and answers for free below. FreeCompTIA Security+ Exam Questions.


   
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(@depietrohobert)
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Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?

  • A . Hacktivist
  • B . Whistleblower
  • C . Organized crime
  • D . Unskilled attacker

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Suggested Answer: C

Explanation:

Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12.

Reference = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide

   
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(@rosendodustin)
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Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?

  • A . Key stretching
  • B . Data masking
  • C . Steganography
  • D . Salting

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Suggested Answer: D

Explanation:

Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks.

Reference =

Passwords technical overview

Encryption, hashing, salting C what’s the difference?

Salt (cryptography)

   
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(@winkelsjayson)
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An employee clicked a link in an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The employee entered the log-in information but received a “page not found” error message.

Which of the following types of social engineering attacks occurred?

  • A . Brand impersonation
  • B . Pretexting
  • C . Typosquatting
  • D . Phishing

Show Answer Hide Answer

Suggested Answer: D

Explanation:

Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites, banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive information, such as log-in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website that mimicked the appearance of the real one. The employee entered the log-in information, but received a “page not found” error message. This indicates that the employee fell victim to a phishing attack, and the attacker may have captured the employee’s credentials for the payment website.

Reference = Other Social Engineering Attacks C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 2.2, CompTIA Security+: Social Engineering Techniques & Other Attack … - NICCS, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

   
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(@palmoahmad)
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An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25.

Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?

  • A . Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
    Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
  • B . Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53
    Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
  • C . Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
    Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53
  • D . Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
    Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53

Show Answer Hide Answer

Suggested Answer: D

Explanation:

The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to send outbound DNS requests (B).

Reference = You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1

Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2

TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28: Firewall Rules3

   
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(@hilbyalvaro)
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A data administrator is configuring authentication for a SaaS application and would like to reduce the number of credentials employees need to maintain. The company prefers to use domain credentials to access new SaaS applications.

Which of the following methods would allow this functionality?

  • A . SSO
  • B . LEAP
  • C . MFA
  • D . PEAP

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Suggested Answer: A

Explanation:

SSO stands for single sign-on, which is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple applications or services with one set of credentials. SSO reduces the number of credentials employees need to maintain and simplifies the login process. SSO can also improve security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and credential theft. SSO can be implemented using various protocols, such as SAML, OAuth, OpenID Connect, and Kerberos, that enable the exchange of authentication information between different domains or systems. SSO is commonly used for accessing SaaS applications, such as Office 365, Google Workspace, Salesforce, and others, using domain credentials123.

B) LEAP stands for Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides authentication for wireless networks. LEAP is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials4.

C) MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of authentication that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity. MFA can enhance security by adding an extra layer of protection beyond passwords, such as tokens, biometrics, or codes. MFA is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials, but it can be used in conjunction with SSO.

D) PEAP stands for Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a protocol that provides

secure authentication for wireless networks. PEAP uses TLS to create an encrypted tunnel between the client and the server, and then uses another authentication method, such as MS-CHAPv2 or EAP-GTC, to verify the user’s identity. PEAP is not related to SaaS applications or domain credentials.

Reference = 1: Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Study Guide | CompTIA IT Certifications 2: What is Single Sign-On (SSO)? - Definition from WhatIs.com 3: Single sign-on - Wikipedia 4: Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol - Wikipedia: What is Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? - Definition from WhatIs.com: Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol - Wikipedia

   
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(@regansnumbers)
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Posts: 134
 

Which of the following scenarios describes a possible business email compromise attack?

  • A . An employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email.
  • B . Employees who open an email attachment receive messages demanding payment in order to access files.
  • C . A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
  • D . An employee receives an email with a link to a phishing site that is designed to look like the company's email portal.

Show Answer Hide Answer

Suggested Answer: A

Explanation:

A business email compromise (BEC) attack is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to company funds or sensitive information. The attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as an executive, a vendor, or a client, and requests a fraudulent payment, a wire transfer, or confidential data. The attacker often uses social engineering techniques, such as urgency, pressure, or familiarity, to convince the victim to comply with the request12.

In this scenario, option A describes a possible BEC attack, where an employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive’s name in the display field of the email. The email may look like it is coming from the executive, but the actual email address may be spoofed or compromised. The attacker may claim that the gift cards are needed for a business purpose, such as rewarding employees or clients, and ask the employee to purchase them and send the codes. This is a common tactic used by BEC attackers to steal money from unsuspecting victims34.

Option B describes a possible ransomware attack, where malicious software encrypts the files on a device and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Option C describes a possible credential harvesting attack, where an attacker tries to obtain the login information of a privileged account by posing as a legitimate authority. Option D describes a possible phishing attack, where an attacker tries to lure the victim to a fake website that mimics the company’s email portal and capture their credentials. These are all types of cyberattacks, but they are not examples of BEC

attacks.

Reference = 1: Business Email Compromise - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.2 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide 3: Business Email Compromise: The 12 Billion Dollar Scam 4: TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy

   
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(@ditommasoerich)
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A company prevented direct access from the database administrators’ workstations to the network segment that contains database servers.

Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers?

  • A . Jump server
  • B . RADIUS
  • C . HSM
  • D . Load balancer

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Suggested Answer: A

Explanation:

A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user’s workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user’s workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.

RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.

HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5.

A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them.

Reference =

How to access a remote server using a jump host

Jump server

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

[What is an HSM?]

[Load balancing (computing)]

[What is Load Balancing?]

   
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 Ted
(@deblieckted)
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An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.

Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?

  • A . NGFW
  • B . WAF
  • C . TLS
  • D . SD-WAN

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Suggested Answer: B

Explanation:

A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data.

Reference = Buffer Overflows C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 2.3, Web Application Firewalls C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

   
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(@winkelsjayson)
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An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users’ passwords.

Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?

  • A . Multifactor authentication
  • B . Permissions assignment
  • C . Access management
  • D . Password complexity

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Suggested Answer: A

Explanation:

The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user’s password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication. Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user’s role or identity. Access management © is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password.

Reference = You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1

Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2

Multi-factor Authentication C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 2.43

TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management,

Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4

CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account

Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5

   
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(@yountsharland)
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An employee receives a text message that appears to have been sent by the payroll department and is asking for credential verification.

Which of the following social engineering techniques are being attempted? (Choose two.)

  • A . Typosquatting
  • B . Phishing
  • C . Impersonation
  • D . Vishing
  • E . Smishing
  • F . Misinformation

Show Answer Hide Answer

Suggested Answer: B E

Explanation:

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action12. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an example of smishing.

Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague, to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits, and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim34. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an example of impersonation.

A) Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to popular or well-known websites, but with intentional spelling errors or different extensions. Typosquatting aims to exploit the common mistakes that users make when typing web addresses, and redirect them to malicious or fraudulent sites that may steal their information, install malware, or display ads56. Typosquatting is not related to text messages or credential verification.

B) Phishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses fraudulent emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Phishing emails often mimic the appearance and tone of legitimate organizations, such as banks, retailers, or service providers, and use deceptive or urgent language to persuade the recipients to take action78. Phishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.

D) Vishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses voice calls to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. Vishing calls

often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as law enforcement, government agencies, or technical support, and use scare tactics or false promises to persuade the recipients to comply9. Vishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.

F. Misinformation is a type of social engineering technique that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence the beliefs, opinions, or actions of the target. Misinformation can be used to manipulate public perception, create confusion, damage reputation, or promote an agenda. Misinformation is not related to text messages or credential verification.

Reference = 1: What is Smishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 2: Smishing - Wikipedia 3: Impersonation Attacks: What Are They and How Do You Protect Against Them? 4: Impersonation - Wikipedia 5: What is Typosquatting? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 6: Typosquatting - Wikipedia 7: What is Phishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 8: Phishing - Wikipedia 9: What is Vishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky: Vishing - Wikipedia: What is Misinformation? | Definition and Examples | Britannica: Misinformation - Wikipedia

   
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(@winkelsjayson)
Estimable Member
Joined: 3 months ago
Posts: 132
 

Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO).

The message stated:

“I’m in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to following email address.”

Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two).

  • A . Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.
  • B . Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.
  • C . Issue a general email warning to the company.
  • D . Have the CEO change phone numbers.
  • E . Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO's phone.
  • F . Implement mobile device management.

Show Answer Hide Answer

Suggested Answer: B, C

Explanation:

This situation is an example of smishing, which is a type of phishing that uses text messages (SMS) to entice individuals into providing personal or sensitive information to cybercriminals. The best responses to this situation are to add a smishing exercise to the annual company training and to issue a general email warning to the company. A smishing exercise can help raise awareness and educate employees on how to recognize and avoid smishing attacks. An email warning can alert employees to the fraudulent text message and remind them to verify the identity and legitimacy of any requests for information or money.

Reference = What Is Phishing | Cybersecurity | CompTIA, Phishing C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 1.1 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses

   
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(@winkelsjayson)
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Joined: 3 months ago
Posts: 132
 

A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks.

Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware?

  • A . A thorough analysis of the supply chain
  • B . A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
  • C . A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
  • D . An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors

Show Answer Hide Answer

Suggested Answer: A

Explanation:

Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps: Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers

Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components

Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security

Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle

Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies Reference = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld,: Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It

   
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(@krumviedalarry)
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Joined: 2 months ago
Posts: 145
 

Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?

  • A . Rules of engagement
  • B . Supply chain analysis
  • C . Right to audit clause
  • D . Due diligence

Show Answer Hide Answer

Suggested Answer: A

Explanation:

Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:

The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.

The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.

The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.

The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.

The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.

The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.

The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.

Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.

Reference = https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engagement/

https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing

   
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(@regansnumbers)
Estimable Member
Joined: 3 months ago
Posts: 134
 

A penetration tester begins an engagement by performing port and service scans against the client environment according to the rules of engagement.

Which of the following reconnaissance types is the tester performing?

  • A . Active
  • B . Passive
  • C . Defensive
  • D . Offensive

Show Answer Hide Answer

Suggested Answer: A

Explanation:

Active reconnaissance is a type of reconnaissance that involves sending packets or requests to a target and analyzing the responses. Active reconnaissance can reveal information such as open ports, services, operating systems, and vulnerabilities. However, active reconnaissance is also more likely to be detected by the target or its security devices, such as firewalls or intrusion detection systems. Port and service scans are examples of active reconnaissance techniques, as they involve probing the target for specific information.

Reference = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1: Given a scenario, conduct reconnaissance using appropriate techniques and tools. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Reconnaissance and Intelligence Gathering, page 47. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 1.

   
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